To all:
A few months ago, i asked a question of which I didn't get an answer for:
Maitland proposed that muscle spasm is a result of pain, but what we know
now is that pain will inhibit muscle contraction... so is Maitland wrong or
is there something that we are overlooking.
I ended up getting a clear answer from a chiropractor (who did physiotherapy
first). His response is that:
"pain-spasm-pain is involuntary muscle contraction. You see that in the
acute torticollis (not spasmodic torticollis) and acute lumbar strain. This
is a natural built in protection for avoiding more possible damages. The VMO
inhibition by pain is measurable when you test it by asking the patient to
voluntarily contract the muscle. The former is a motor facilitation via
spinal reflex, and the latter is a motor inhibition via the supraspinal
control."
For more information about this, refer to:
Pain 1998 mar; 75(1):1-17 "understanding and measurement of muscle tone as
related to clinical muscle pain." Simons DG, Mense S.
Henry***
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