More thoughts from the ignorant.
Clearly a patient who has had one half of their coagulation casacade stuffed
by thrombolysis and the other half by warfarin is more likely to have a bleed
than one who is not anti-coagulated...........but by how much?
if the risk of major bleed on strep is 1% ish and tPA 2% ish what is it with
warfarin?
Just had a patient with warfarin on board who had myocardial ischaemia (not
infarcting) and was provoked in to thinking (for a change)
all replies will be gratefully accepted!
Peter
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