Ok I may be being thick here and may have missed a paper on this but how about
this scenario....
An adult patient with a GCS of 15 is brought from a RTA. He has midline cervical
spine tenderness but no apparent abnormality of his CNS or Peripheral NS.
Q1 Do you put him in a hard collar or tape him down or both ?. I have worked
with senior colleagues in various establishments where a mixture of the above
occurs.(Despite ATLS training!)
Q2 If he had some localising neuro signs would that change your thinking?
Q3 If he was GCS 14-13 would that change your view?
Q4 Is there any evidence for any of this ?
Q5 Or am I just being thick ? (and the answer is probably yes)
Any thoughts?
Peter Cutting
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