In our fMRI experiment, we have an oblique axial cutting for both
multiphase EPI image and a corresponding T1 image (all not cover the whole
brain). When the T2 EPI is used for normalization, the result is
different from when I use T1. I assume that T1 would produce a more
accurate normalization.
I'm thinking what's the process to use T1 as normalization standard and
wrap the T2 in the same way rather than use T2 as normalization
standard. Is the correct procedure:
1) realign and reslice T1 & T2 sets
2) normalize T1
3) coregister realigned T2 (object) to realigned T1 (target)
4) statistical analysis on coregistered T2
5) overlay statistical maps with normalized T1
Thanks.
Best,
Kelvin
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