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PODIATRY  2000

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Subject:

Re: STJ and orthoses responce

From:

"Jeff Root" <[log in to unmask]>

Reply-To:

[log in to unmask]

Date:

Fri, 18 Aug 2000 10:38:57 -0700

Content-Type:

text/plain

Parts/Attachments:

Parts/Attachments

text/plain (56 lines)

Craig,
Another thought after re-reading your original posting, you said: "decreased
calcaneal eversion and increased internal tibial rotation at the same time".

Please clarify one thing from me.  The statement internal tibial rotation
describes motion.  Do you really mean motion, as in an increased range of
motion?  Or do you really mean position, as in a change in the position of
the tibia at a given moment in time?

If you are measuring the range of motion of the tibia, then a subject who is
functioning maximally pronated during the stance phase of gait may
demonstrate little tibial rotation but experience an increase in the ROM of
the tibia if the orthosis restores the functional ROM of the STJ.

This is one of my concerns with studies that attempt to correlate tibial
markers and STJ ROM (control).  A severely pronated foot that functions with
an everted calcaneus and little STJ motion may substantially decrease the
need for tibial rotation during gait since the STJ is not re-supinating.
When an orthosis reduces the pronated position of the STJ and allows an
increase the functional ROM of the STJ, then you should see an increased ROM
of the tibia.  Therefore increased tibial motion and STJ "control" can go
together when you define "control" as promoting a more normal pattern of
motion of the STJ.

Respectfully,
Jeff Root

> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Craig Payne" <[log in to unmask]>
> To: <[log in to unmask]>
> Sent: Thursday, August 17, 2000 2:59 PM
> Subject: STJ and orthoses responce
>
>
> > Is it physiologically possible and biologically possible for the
putative
> > STJ axis to be declined rather than its assumed inclination?
> >
> > We are starting to look at subject specific/individual responces to foot
> > orthoses and it does appear that in some subjects orthoses appear to
have
> > decreased calcaneal eversion and increased internal tibial rotation at
the
> > same time (!!!!!). I can not think of a coherent explanation apart from
> the
> > STJ axis having a declination angle ... or is the bloody midtarsal joint
> > getting in the way again.
>
>
>
>



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