Dear All
I was wondering if anyone could provide me with an
arguement or reference (preferably both) as to why p-values
can never be exactly equal to zero.
Does anyone have any thoughts or comments on the following:
Some colleagues object to me presenting a p-value as
p=0.000 (even if I indicate that I am presenting to only
three decimal places) and prefer me to use p<0.0001. I do
not like the latter as I think it ultimately encourages or
endorses the use of stars or NS (Not significant) and S
(Significant) to represent p-values. Furthermore, if one
takes that view that one can never present p=0.000 to
represent a p-value to three decimal places, surely I can
never present any so-called 'exact p-values'?
Somewhere in the depths of my memory I recall that someone
was trying to arrange a one-day conference on p-values. Has
there been any progress?
Please email me directly and if there is sufficient
response I will email the list.
Many thanks
Philip Sedgwick
-----------------------------------
Dr. Philip Sedgwick
Lecturer in Medical Statistics
Department of Public Health Sciences
St. Georges Hospital Medical School
London SW17 0RE
Email: [log in to unmask]
Telephone: +44 20 8725 5551
Fax: +44 20 8725 3584
%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%%
|